nasal abbreviations + thatei / ei before indirect speech
akoddsson
konrad_oddsson at YAHOO.COM
Thu Jan 12 15:37:30 UTC 2006
Hailai,
> > He dismisses the idea that the construction can be
shown to be native to Gothic by recourse to the use of 'at' before
direct speech in Old Norse legal texts.
> > Incidentally, on the choice of tense in indirect speech, see also
Streitberg 356. He just comments that the Gothic translation mostly
imitates the Greek in this respect too. There are supposedly a few
instances of apparent differences, but he points out that these are
probably based on some variant Greek text.
If Gothic did not really use ei in indirect speech, as used by
Wulfila, then what did it use? Sure, I grant that Wulfila simply
translated the words of a greek text, but at the same it seems
unlikely that he would have developed a usage entirely foreign to
native gothic speakers, who were, after all, his audience. What
strikes me most here, in the explanation above, is that it suggests no
alternative usage, presumably more native to Gothic. On the other
hand, if the use of ei was native to gothic in this function, one
imagines that Wulfila's audience would have no problems understanding
him, even if his translations were thought oddly worded and foreign to
some extent in syntax, word-usage, etc. He was, after all, translating
concepts and culture entirely foreign to Goths and Gothic. Thus, while
I certainly suspect that Wulfila stretched the meanings of words, and
was perhaps somewhat novel syntactically, I do not imagine that he
developed new usage in indirect speach without any precedent. Am I
alone in this supposition?
Now, about the usage of ei, both in indirect speach (see also the
comments about norse 'at' in legal texts above) and as a relative, not
much is known comparatively speaking, as the usage is only attested in
gothic. Now, it so happens that I have researched this topic to some
extent, as I thought it needed in my investigations on the development
of germanic pronominal development. Now, all germanic languages have
different relative usages, as attested. Compare the German use of der,
OE the, (forms presumably from the demonstrative *the- stem), ON es,
Go. ei, etc.. Thus, one might logically ask, what was the original
germanic relative usage, if any? In short, the answer to this question
is that no one knows. We lack early attestations, Gothic aside, which
could shed light on this development. Literature on earlies stages of
the northwest germanic languages, which I have read, generally avoids
the topic, refers to Gothic, or offers no suggestions here. Clearly,
few seem to be willing to risk their head here or offer suggestions.
Now Voyles is one exception. In his reconstruction of the northwest
germanic pronominal system from about 200AD, he offers the following
suggestion about the origin of ON es, which is used as an indeclinable
relative pronoun for all persons, cases and genders in ON - that its
use as a relative was probably from iz + i (long). Hmmm. Now, I think
that this makes sense, and I offer the following suggestion on my own:
if Gothic usage of ei preserves the original PGmc relative usage, as
perhaps also indirect, then this might account for why these usages
are so different in all of the other attested languages. Simply put,
if PGmc *ei were lost independently in the other germanic languages,
then each language would be forced to develope its own usage with
regards to the relative, and likely also in indirect speach, if Gothic
has anything to say here. Now, on the face of it, this appears to be
exactly what happened. Thus, about the use of 'at' in Norse legal
texts (see above), I offer the following suggestion: that it developed
from earlier *that + ei, but survived as 'at' (earlier 'that' is also
attested in this usage) in later usage. Similarly, the naked use of ei
as a relative and in indirect speach in Gothic could be an inherited
feature in Gothic, all other changes aside.
Comments welcome :)
Regards,
Konrad
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