Toledo
Leonard Blunk
lionineone at YAHOO.COM
Thu Jul 12 17:54:12 UTC 2007
No but American and European audiences do so we tend to use God-zilla as opposed to God-zira. Then too there is that uppity attitude that since they lost the war and we won, we have some kind of right to disrespect their language.
DR. ORIENT ROHMER
ualarauans <ualarauans at yahoo.com> wrote:
--- In gothic-l at yahoogroups.com, macmaster at ... wrote:
>
>
> Why couldn't they be borrowed in the way that modern English has
borrowed
> words with sounds not found in it?
ie., 'qat', 'hannukah', 'challah',
> 'sheikh', etc ...
But English doesn't pronounce these words exactly as they are
pronounced in the donor languages. Their sounds are anyway adapted
to the phonetic skills of English speakers. And besides, these loans
were made into a worldwide spoken language with a millennium-long
tradition of writing and opportunities to take the new words
directly and to spell them after the existing conditional
transliterations. E.g. you don't pronounce the second /h/ in
Hanukkah? Just imagine what would have become of Hanukkah or sheikh
in a language spoken mostly by illiterate peasants, like Vulgar
Latin was, without a lasting intercourse with Hebrew resp. Arab
speakers. Or what would be the result if English would have taken
sheikh from a language which has no [sh] sound and substitutes it
regularly with [s]. You'd have now *seikh.
BTW, does anyone know why they say Godzilla, not Godzira after the
Japanese pronunciation (Japanese has no [l] sound)?
Ualarauans
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