[gothic-l] Re: is Gothic the language of one or a few men?

[Dicentis a roellingua@gmail.com [gothic-l]]

Basti, my claim was based on a small part in a book which I read which said
that the Visigoths used this Gothic Bible while Wulfila was living among
the Ostrogoths and had written this Bible (or as is thought now, other
people wrote it) in the Balkans, which is not where the Visigoths were.
Therefore, it's likely that it was originally intended for the Ostrogoths,
but as they basically spoke the same language it got used by the Visigoths
later.

2015-02-11 19:46 GMT+01:00 Weidemyr Basti setiez at yahoo.com [gothic-l] <
gothic-l at yahoogroups.com>:

>
>
> "As I have read how Visigoths and Ostrogoths could understand each other
> well I think tgat there wasn't much to standardize."
>
> I understood the idea of standardization in the context of the migration
> hypothesis, that for example Old Nordic, a predecessor of OHG (Vandalic?,
> Suebian?) and one or two additional languages, would have been mixed up to
> ca 350 when Wulfila began to translate.
>
> The first result from a web-search says the split between Visigoths and
> Ostrogoths happened around 370 CE. Unless the division into Visigoths and
> Ostrogoths was an old concept resurrected, Visigoths and Ostrogoths would
> have spoken the same language, so this division should have nothing to do
> with the standardization idea. It would be like saying "I don't think
> English has been a mix of Anglic, Nordic, German and Latin, because
> Australians and Americans understand each other well."
>
> Or what do you think?
> /Basti
>
>
>
>    
>
-------------- next part --------------
An HTML attachment was scrubbed...
URL: <http://listserv.linguistlist.org/pipermail/gothic-l/attachments/20150211/f6552add/attachment.htm>