Language/dialect differentiation

[manaster at umich.edu]

----------------------------Original message----------------------------
I think that Bantu and several branches of Uto-Aztecan
(Numic, Californian, probably others) are examples of
linguistic units which split into several really distinct
languages despite the absence of literacy and without
losing contact completely (like Polynesian and such).
If this is right, then Roger's suggestion that
complete differentiation requires either physical
lack of contact or literacy would be clearly refuted.
But I dont know how much contact we can assume.
 
Perhaps a better example would be the differentiation
of the Dutch-Low German-High German area, where the
extreme dialects are surely completely mutually
unintelligible and much more radically different than
the literary languages.  Even with High German,
I'd supsect that extreme Swiss and say Thuringian
dialects are separate languages despite the existence
of a chain of intermediate forms and lack of
separation, and clearly Eastern Yiddish is a
distinct language from say the German of Schaffhausen
andyet again there was always (mediated) contact.
 
One can probably say the same about some extreme
varieties of English as well.
 
AMR