intervocalic devoicing: language nomenclature

[Alan R. King]

----------------------------Original message----------------------------
I wasn't going to bother, but as there isn't much excitement here at the
moment I'll go for it, and defend myself on a "correction" of one of my
last posts.
 
Roger Wright "pulled me up" on my referring to "Spanish" as "Castilian".  I
said:
 
>>  ....  is their pronunciation of the stops, since the more
>>recent generations, who are Spanish speaking, apparently assimilated the
>>Welsh system to the Castilian one.
 
to which Roger remarks:
 
>Argentinian Spanish isn't very Castilian, but, yes, it still has the
>voicing opposition, normally without aspiration.
 
For the record, it is perfectly commonplace, particularly in Latin America,
to refer to "Spanish" as "castellano".  Agreed, in English the most
widespread term is "Spanish", but the two can be considered synonyms
(although some other usages have sometimes been suggested).
 
The point is that "Castilian" does *not* normally refer to a certain
dialect of the Spanish language, either traditionally or in present usage
(although it perfectly well could do, of course).  Rather, it refers to the
Romance *language* which first sprang up in Cantabria and Castile, became
the tongue of the medieval kingdom of Castile, was spread from there by
conquest to other parts of the peninsula and thence elsewhere around the
world (Argentina included), has also been progressively but still
incompletely imposed on other linguistic communities within the state of
Spain itself (namely Galicia, Asturias, the Basque Country and the "Paisos
Catalans"), and is now known as either the Castilian or the Spanish language.
 
As for the preferred Politically Correct designation, there are different
viewpoints (on what isn't there?).  Among those with strongly aware of the
existence, and indeed official recognition by the present constitutional
regime, of languages other than "Spanish" in the "Spanish State" (another
PC expression in such circles), there are (at least) two conflicting
usages.  Many prefer the designation "Castilian" to emphasise that it is
not, after all, the only "Spanish" language.  A politically more radical
position (at least in the Basque Country) says that calling it "Spanish" is
perfectly PC.  Why?  Well, because Galicia, the Basque Country and the
"Catalan Countries" aren't really *Spain* anyway....
 
I offer these remarks, naturally, not to start an argument but as
documentation of current alternative usages on a subject perfectly
tangential and immaterial to the ongoing discussion, but  pertinent for
linguists and perhaps of passing interest to the present readership, if
only out of curiosity.
 
Alan
 
 
Alan R. King, Ph.D.
alanking at bigfoot.com
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