clarification on query
Andrew Carnie
carnie at U.Arizona.EDU
Thu Jun 26 23:45:42 UTC 2003
Hi All,
I think my previous message wasn't clear. I'm really looking at
clarification over the notion of domination. What I'm asking is if
given some node X that dominates Y and Z, does
-X *replace* Y and Z (as in TG); meaning that the representation
contains only Y and Z; X is a historial artifact (or vice
versa, the representation contains only X, and Y and Z are
historical artifacts.
- or does X *contain* Y and Z (as in MP), there is one object in
the representation (X), which contains all the material
formerly in Y and Z. Y and Z no long exist except
derivationally
- or does it *represent* Y and Z (as in GB), X, Y and Z are all
identifiable objects in the representation (and
derivation). They are related through structural relations.
- or something entirely different?
Hope that makes the question marginally less incoherent.
AC
------------------------------------------------------------------------------
O O O O O Andrew Carnie, Ph.D.
<|\/|\/|\/|\/|> Asst. Professor of Linguistics
= = = = = Department of Linguistics
<< << << << << Douglass 200E, University of Arizona
~~ ~~ ~~ ~~ ~~ Tucson, AZ 85721
Tel: (520) 621 2802
Cell: (520) 971 1166
http://linguistlist.org/~carnie
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