The Indo-European Hypothesis [was Re: The Neolithic Hypothesis]

Ray Hendon rayhendon at worldnet.att.net
Sun Apr 4 04:55:43 UTC 1999


Dear Mr. Trask:

Thank you for responding so thoroughly and informatively to my poorly
phrased and uninformed questions.  I was most reluctant to pose any question
about language, given my utter ignorance in the field.  I certainly had no
intention of sounding a challenge to those in the field of historical
linguistics about the veracity or accuracy of IE.  Being professionally
skeptical, however, I did want to consider the possibility that IE, as an
hypothesis, would be subject to the rules of all hypotheses, and vulnerable
to evidence that would just as convincingly point to the opposite conclusion
as to the expected conclusion.

I appreciate your correcting my vocabulary about child vs daughter
languages.  My choice of words probably was influenced by my work in the
computer industry where "child" accounts, "child" processes, etc. are
encountered frequently.  I can see the necessity of substituting the word
daughter for child, as the word child has an immature connotation to it that
would not be appropriate for a fully developed language.

Your comments and explanation of the family tree model was also most
helpful.  Certainly in Europe, where the dominate languages share such
obvious roots, a family tree model would be the handiest and most logical
model to explain divergence.  I wonder if the Asian languages of China,
Korea and Japan share a similar background of divergence due to isolation.

I must confess that your last point relative to the possibility that IE
developed from more than one language, did cross my mind as I was
investigating the issue. So, I felt it worthwile to ask about it.  I am
convinced now, that the IE model has stood the test of time, analysis and
criticism, and accept your assertion that while IE may not be the only
accepted model of linguistic development, it does the best job of explaining
how most European languages developed.  The only question I have now is,
where does the Africian languages (Hebrew and Arabic, primarily) enter the
IE equation?   Is it assumed that prior to PIE, the Asian and Africian
languages that were non PIE were influencial in the ultimate development of
PIE?  Surely there were many words that came from these sources, given the
importance of the religious vocabulary available to the Hebraic people.

Thanks again for taking the time to help me out.  I am deeply appreciative
of your efforts.

Ray Hendon



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