Mycenaean (Standardization)

[X99Lynx at aol.com]

I wrote:
<<But the real question is what rate of change we see in Mycenaean.>>

In a message dated 4/2/99 4:00:25 AM, JoatSimeon at aol.com wrote:

<<-- we don't see any change in Mycenaean, because it was only written for a
century or two.>>

Although I've been told that language can change wildly or not change at all,
for no reason at all, I find this notable if true.

There is a curve that is observable with the coming of literacy.  A fair
number of IE languages do show quite a bit of change in their first centuries
of literacy - if for no other reasons then just getting the characters and
their sounds straight.

If Mycenaean truly shows no sign of change during the centuries from the time
it was first written, that would seem unusual.  And certainly might suggest
some kind of standardizing had gone on before the appearance of Linear B.  Or
at least the same time.  Otherwise we would expect "dialectic gradients,"
wouldn't we?

[ Moderator's query:
  In accounting ledgers???
  --rma ]

Regards,
Steve Long