Uralic and IE

[Miguel Carrasquer Vidal]

"Mag.Hans-Joachim Alscher" <hans.alscher at noel.gv.at> wrote:

>Miguel Carrasquer Vidal schrieb:

>> Sanskrit, for instance, has -d for the ablative, -t for the
>> 3rd.p. sg.   Reason enough.

>But Sanskrit (and probably PIE) shows Sandhi and the realization  depends on
>the following word so that there is no difference of -d/-dh/-t at the end of
>the word.

Oops, you're right about Sanskrit.  Still, the Vedic a-stem
ablative is always given as <-a:d> and the n. dem. pronoun as
<tad>, which makes me suspect Vedic sandhi rules were different.

Does anybody know?

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv at wxs.nl
Amsterdam