The Indo-European Hypothesis [was Re: The Neolithic Hypothesis]

[Ray Hendon]

I like the example Steven used to explain how English became the dominate
language among elites of India whereas Latin failed to become the same thing
to the English.  It well demonstrates the complexity of the make-up of the
"exposure" and "susceptibility" variables in the epidemiological model.
But, there is an important difference in the situation in India vis-a-vies
theEnglish, or at least I think there is.  Wasn't the language spoken in
pre-Roman Brittain more uniform than the language spoken in India.  I have
Indian friends that tell me that there is a different language every fifty
miles or so throughout India--actually there are dialictical differences, I
presume.  But English, learned by the wealthiest elites would be a unifying
languages in the sense that it had strong utilitarian uses in meeting to
settle legislative issues, etc.

Sending their children to school to learn English, for example, is a
conscious seeking out of exposure, implying a strong preference for a
particular language of the rulling elites.  Their "susceptibility" to
learning English was obviously quite high.

One last question:  do many people speak English in India today, i.e.,
people outside the elites?

Ray Hendon