H1 and t??

[Glen Gordon]

ME (GLEN) IN RESPONSE TO JENS' SOUND RULE FOR *yu:s "you":
  Still don't get it. How does *t- become *y-??

MIGUEL:
  It's not that difficult to understand what Jens is saying,
  whether one agrees or not.  The *y- in *yu:s is secondary, and we
  have *u:s/*wos (Slavic vy < *(w)u:- and vasU, Lat. vo:s, Skt.
  vas, Alb. ju < *u, etc.).  The nifty sound law then becomes *cw-
  > w- (and I guess alternatively sw-, judging by Hitt. sume:s,
  OIr. si:, We. chwi, Goth. i-zwis).

Hmm, perhaps it takes that special someone to "understand" what Jens
is really saying. Now I know why I wasn't getting it. It's too
farfetched for me to have considered.

The forms in *yu- are found throughout the wide gambit of IE (Germanic
and Indo-Aryan) and of course *u- minus the initial *y- in enclitic
forms are equally spread out. I fail to see how this consistent and
persistent *y- arises from a **cw- exactly but I CAN understand how a
Hittite <sume:s> can arise from a form with *yu- ...but then I often
have difficulty understanding these things... :)

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Glen Gordon
glengordon01 at hotmail.com
Kisses and Hugs
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