The Indo-European Hypothesis [was Re: The Neolithic Hypothesis]

[Ray Hendon]

Earlier I wrote:
I like the example Steven used to explain how English became the dominate
language among elites of India whereas Latin failed to become the same thing
to the English.  It well demonstrates the complexity of the make-up of the
"exposure" and "susceptibility" variables in the epidemiological model.
But, there is an important difference in the situation in India vis-a-vie
the English, or at least I think there is.  Wasn't the language spoken in
pre-Roman Brittain more uniform than the language spoken in India.

I did not consider that when Caesar Brought his legions into England, the
year was about 56 ace and the language in the area was probably Celtic, not
English.  I don't know how uniform Celtic was at that time, but the Celts
were primarily an agricultural population, not needing anything of a
centralized nature in terms of administration or governmental entities.

Please accept my appology for not being as careful as I should have been in
assessing the situation at the time and for posting a question that makes no
sense.

Ray Hendon