glottalic theory

[Peter &/or Graham]

HI folks

I've read recently that early Finnish borrowings from Germanic (e.g. aja-
"drive") show that the traditional plain voiced stops (PIE *g & *d) were
indeed voiced in proto-Germanic.  This means they could not have been
voiceless ejectives as the glottalicists suggest.   (Voiced implosives would
not explain the near absence of *b).   The writer of the article suggested a
process by which voiceless ejectives became voiced in Germanic, and then
devoiced, which rather removes any advantage the glottalic theory has over
the traditional theory in explaining the Germanic sound shift.

Can anyone out there confirm the Finnish evidence, and if it is indeed
accurate, can anyone show how we can continue to support the glottalic
theory in the face of it?

Peter