PIE vs. Proto-World (Proto-Language)

petegray petegray at btinternet.com
Sun Aug 8 15:05:23 UTC 1999

Rick said:

> non-African [modern human]
> populations began leaving Africa about 100,000 BP. If language was
> developed before 100,000 BP --and my understanding is that this is the
> consensus, then these languages would seem to have a common origin in
> Africa.

I'm happy with "origin in Africa".   It may or may not have been "common".

> How they are related to existing African families is another
> question.

I do hope I misunderstand you - and I'm sure I must.
You are not seriously suggesting that the people of African are not "modern

[ Moderator's comment:
  I'm certain you have misunderstood, although the phrasing could have been
  better.  I think the distinction was between an emigration of "modern humans"
  and a prior emigration of older hominids.
  --rma ]

If you agree that they are just as much "modern humans" as everyone else,
then on your argument you either have common contact before departure, or
you have a flow of people back into Africa, either of which rather destroys
your theory of African languages being grand relics of some pre-modern

If you do not believe that the peoples of Africa are "modern humans", then I
need to cease the discussion before I say something rude.


[ Moderator's comment:
  I think what was meant is that the language families found outside Africa may
  relate to those within Africa in several ways:
  1. All the language families may be grouped into a single super-family.
  2. All the language families outside of Africa may be grouped with one or
     more, but *not* all, those within Africa.
  3. Some language families found outside Africa may be grouped with one or
     more of those within Africa, and others with others.
  --rma ]

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