Peter &/or Graham
petegray at btinternet.com
Wed Feb 24 09:22:19 UTC 1999
. Sturtevant did mention the
>Greek forms with /kh/, <*gh.
That leaves three questions unanswered:
(a) Was Sturtevant prioritising the Greek evidence over the Sanskrit? Or
was he suggesting two forms (*nokt- and *negh)? Neither is satisfactory.
(b) How do we explain the Greek vocalism if the PIE form is *negh? At
least *negwh would give us a mechanism for the /y/ vowel (< /u/)
(c) Can we reconcile the Skt -kt-, which argues against the voiced aspirate,
with the Gk -kh -, which implies it? The suggestion that **negh-t- >
*nekt- before Barthomolae's law is up and running in I-I crashes into the
problem that the past participle forms in -tos appear widely in attested IE,
and so must also be fairly old forms. We would have to argue that the past
participles were still perceived as root + -tos, at a time when *nekt- was
no longer perceived as *negh+t-.
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