Celtic influence in English

[iffr762 at utxvms.cc.utexas.edu]

On Sun, 7 Feb 1999, Gordon Selway wrote:

> The historical and archaeological evidence (and some from comparing ancient
> DNA with that of current inhabitants) suggests that there may have been no
> population displacement in the area I live in (the lower Severn valley),
> but only repeated accretions, perhaps since the last retreat of the
> glaciers.

> It is clear that, once the region had come within 'English' control (577
> CE, after the Wessex victory at the battle of Deorham), it did not change
> from Welsh to English speaking for as long as 300-400 years (and in
> isolated pockets not for 1,250 years or so), and that there was a period of
> both languages being spoken.

	Yes ... and the extensive use of verbal periphrasis which is
characteristic of both Brittonic and English first shows up (in English)
in SWestern Middle English, and seems to be accepted as nothing notably
horrific further east in (a good part of) the Midlands.  What a
coincidence!  Apparently immigration carries these features to London,
more or less as immigration from the Danelaw (notably East Anglia) did the
same for Norse features.
	
					DLW

P.S.  What I have to say here is likely to come out in little driblets
like this, as in between my original e-missive and the predictable howls
of outrage it suddenly occurred to me that I have a dissertation to finish
(what a concept), and that I should no longer live my life on the IE list.