Semitic and Finno-Ugrian??

GregWeb at GregWeb at
Wed Jan 27 14:58:59 UTC 1999

I still have my doubts that a North-Semitic language could have reached the
Black Sea in time to influence PIE itself, but, perhaps, the Semitic influence
was transferred, not directly, but through Kartvelian.   Does that make sense
as a possibility?

In any event, it seems clear that any Semitic influence was just that, an
influence, like French influenced English after the Normans, and that there
was not some common PIE-Semitic protolanguage.

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