Greek question

[Miguel Carrasquer Vidal]

ewb2 at cornell.edu wrote:

>Nyx has stem nykt-os. So why do some derivatives have nykh- as
>in nykhios, pannykhis etc? Frisk's etym.dict. just says one
>stem is 'neben' the other. Has anyone figured out anything
>more informative?

I guess this could be explained by the so-called "Pelasgian"
theory as a word taken from a non-Greek IE substrate/adstrate
language, where *k(w) > kh (and *gh(w) > g, *g(w) > k, etc., as
in Armenian).

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv at wxs.nl
Amsterdam