sean at lares.dti.ne.jp
Sat Jan 30 07:05:45 UTC 1999
Had there been any possible process of grammaticalization
that has dichtomizeted the noun of the languages, belonging to
the branch of IE, into a label of gender as masculine or feminine?
...or adding neuter in a case. I just wondering what was the notion
to give the noun a subdivision with gender.
It may be naturally assumptioned that the distinction originally
comes from a biological gender, but such illogicality that penetrates
a language, like a difference between German and French. For the former
assigns a label for the word indicating --moon-- masculine but the latter
attachs feminine for corresponding word --lune--.
I have once presented same question in other list last year from a
very curious. One of those who gave me the reply with taking a example
from Japanese and reminded me a awkward point of the language. That we
count apples with the suffix --ko-, rabbits with --wa-, books with
--satu-, and Kentucky Fried Chicken with --piece-- is certainly seemed
to me strange feature of Japanese.
Kanto Gakuin University
More information about the Indo-european