Origin & Evolution of Languages

[Stefan Georg]

>  Now, as it changes, what it "wants" in a language
>changes.  Just as subterranean animals lose their eyes, a language in a
>culture becoming more egalitarian will lose a formal/informal
>distinction.  In English, this also resulted in an inadvertent loss of
>singular/plural distinction in 2nd person.

With due respect, you are not really saying that English lost the number
distinction here because of English society becoming (more) *egalitarian*,
or are you ?
Or, to stretch the argument, does anyone think that some languages
innovated the category of inferentiality (Turkish as against Old Turkic,
Lhasa Tibetan as against Written Tibetan, Bulgarian as against Old Church
Slavonic aso. aso.) because the respective societies became , say, more
*skeptical* ?

Sorry, I'm not trying to make fun of you, sometimes language may indeed
follow culture in certain respects, but, sorry again, I have difficulties
with squaring the two notions "English" and "egalitarian".