IE pers.pron. (dual forms)
Patrick C. Ryan
proto-language at email.msn.com
Sat May 1 14:18:42 UTC 1999
[ moderator re-formatted ]
Dear Jens and IEists:
----- Original Message -----
From: Jens Elmegaard Rasmussen <jer at cphling.dk>
Sent: Tuesday, April 27, 1999 4:44 PM
<snip>
>> The main problem, however, is one that I think we run into far more often
>> than we generally recognize, and that is that some linguists *contrive* very
>> complicated rules to be able to ascribe a common origin to forms that are
>> simply not commensurable.
> It only makes things worse if you reconstruct _against_ the rules: The
> dual forms mentioned can all derived from *-e, the Greek one alone also
> from *-H1, but then the forms indeed are not commensurable. BTW, I fail to
> see the serious objection (if it is meant to be one): What is complicated
> by deriving /-e/ of one language and /-e/ of another from a common
> protoform *-e ?
But this is not what Beekes is doing. On pp. 194-195 (comp. IE Ling.), he
attempts to ascribe the common basis -*H{1}e to the animate consonant stems.
He then proceeds to identify an inanimate (neuter) -*iH{1}.
I would maintain that the great majority of the (animate and inanimate)
forms can be more simply from *-y.
<snip>
> It even looks as if Beekes considers the IE languages more closely
> related to each other than to Egyptian.
Ha! But, of course, so do I.
>> I interpret these facts (and others) to indicate that Nostratic had a
>> collective suffix -w(V), and that this suffix was one of those employed
>> to form a dual in IE.
> I fail to see that such a morpheme has left any palpable imprint on IE.
> But show us where!
>> I would analyze Sanskrit -a:(u) as (C)wa in opposition to Beekes' -H{1}e.
>> [ Moderator's comment:
>> The final -u in the Sanskrit dual is not Indo-European, but an Indic
>> development that is not present even in Iranian.
>> --rma ]
In every such case, we have the option of identifying an innovation, or, far
less likely but still possible, a retention of an original feature in only
one branch.
> It is present in Goth. ahtau, Skt. aSta:/-au, Av. ashta. It appears to be
> a special Indic _choice_ out of an Indo-Iranian pair of sandhi variants
> which proceed from an IE pair of variants.
Based on the Egyptian evidence, I prefer to see the -*(u) of *okto:(u) as a
numeral-siffix rather than a dual. I am aware of several attempts to
identify a 'four' root that might have served as a basis for a dual meaning
'eight' though, IMHO, they have not been successful.
<snip>
>> Of course, there are sporadic forms like Greek no{'}: from *no:wi, combining
>> *ne/o + *wi:, 'two', and a 'laryngeal' is not necessary to explain the <o:>
>> in a stress-accented open syllable; a mechanism as simple as transference of
>> length back to the stress-accented syllable from *-wi: could explain it.
> Are you talking about a metathesis of quantity, *nowi: > *no:wi? If so,
> what makes you think that was a rule? Or is it an invention - mother
> of comedy, huh - like some of my early stages?
Well, I thought it was generally accepted that stress-accent in an open
syllable could be lengthened, and that stress-unaccented syllables are
shortened. Have I just invented that?
> [... On the 1st person dual pronoun:]
>> I [...] would go the further step of suggesting that a 'laryngeal' is not
>> required to be reconstructed at all.
> Then what would be the enclitic form meaning "us two" in IE? */no:/ ending
> in a long vowel?
I am going to pass the wand. What do you think it is?
Pat
PATRICK C. RYAN (501) 227-9947; FAX/DATA (501)312-9947 9115 W. 34th St.
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