Contributions by Steve Long

[JoatSimeon at aol.com]

>colkitto at sprint.ca writes:

>Actually, there is a linguistic consideration.  Scots used to have a large
>number of distinctive lexical items, differentiating it from "English". Many
>of these are now rare in everyday speech, thus reducing the amount of
>differentation.>>

-- upper-class Scots began conforming to southern English useage long before
the Act of Union of 1707.