Pre-Greek languages
Ralf-Stefan Georg
Georg at home.ivm.de
Tue Oct 19 23:34:59 UTC 1999
>>Why did Anatolian have to move through the Balkans?
>Starting from the Ukraine, we have the following constraints:
>A) there is no evidence of any IE languages ever having been in the
>Caucasus prior to Armenian, making that route unlikely in the extreme.
This is a classic argumentum e silentio. Othoh, while it is true that these
things are extremely controversial, some possible early loanwords of IE
provenance in NE Cauc lgs. are sometimes being discussed.
>B) cultures with written history predate the probable appearance of the
>Hittites in Anatolian in Mesopotamia. None of these written sources give
>*any* indication of any likely pre-Anatolian people anywhere near
>Mesopotamia.
I'd say Anatolia *is* near Mesopotamia !?!
>(They do indicate an early appearance of proto-Iranian
>peoples to the east of Mesopotamia)
Indian
>>Even if you don't buy Anatolia as the PIE homeland, why couldn't Anatolian
>>have entered Anatolia across the Caucasus or from east of the Caspian Sea,
>>through Iran?
>The first is made unlikely by the lack of IE-related cultural artifacts in
>the Caucusus
what is an "IE-related cultural artefact" ???
>and the *total* lack of any pre-Armenian IE substratal
>influences in any of the non-IE languages of the Caucasus.
>
>For the second you have to explain why the Sumerians, Old Bablyonians and
>Assyians make NO mention of any possible pre-Anatolian peoples, while they
>*do* give indications of the existence of proto-Iranian peoples in Iran
>(look at the Mitanni words for charioteering).
Indian
Just asking ...
Stefan Georg
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+49-228-69-13-32
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