Linear A to Linear B
Stanley Friesen
sarima at ix.netcom.com
Wed Oct 20 02:58:08 UTC 1999
At 08:32 PM 10/15/99 +0100, you wrote:
>Larry asks for responses in a posting where he says:
>> Linear A was used to write the unknown language we call Minoan. In all
>> likelihood, it was invented for the purpose of writing that language.
>Much of Larry's posting appears to me reasonable and common sense, except
>that here I wish to add a quibble. It seems to me more likely that the
>idea that a language could be written down did not develop in isolation in
>Crete, but was imported from somewhere. We know that when this happened
>elsewhere, it was very common for the inspiring script to be adapted to the
>new language, rather than for a totally new script to be developed ex nihilo
>(although I grant there are one or two exceptions). This adaptation often
>meant inadequacies or infelicities in the resultant script. I would
>therefore be very cautious in using the argument that the script of Linear A
>must reflect the language well, since it was "invented" for linear A.
If Linear A were in some sense imported, one would expect to see *some*
prior trace of it elsewhere. We do not. Instead we see prior pictorial
inscriptions in Crete.
Also, importing the *idea* of writing does not necessarily imply importing
a script. It seems likely that Mesopotamia influenced Egypt in the
formation of hieroglyphic writing, but the Egyptians *still* seem to have
gone ahead and invented their own system. And, more controversially, I
suspect much the same thing happened with regard to the Chinese script,
many years later.
--------------
May the peace of God be with you. sarima at ix.netcom.com
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