Linear A to Linear B

[Larry Trask]

Pete Gray writes:

>  Larry asks for responses in a posting where he says:
>> Linear A was used to write the unknown language we call Minoan.  In all
>> likelihood, it was invented for the purpose of writing that language.

> Much of Larry's posting appears to me reasonable and common sense, except
> that here I wish to add a quibble.   It seems to me more likely that the
> idea that a language could be written down did not develop in isolation in
> Crete, but was imported from somewhere.    We know that when this happened
> elsewhere, it was very common for the inspiring script to be adapted to the
> new language, rather than for a totally new script to be developed ex nihilo
> (although I grant there are one or two exceptions).    This adaptation often
> meant inadequacies or infelicities in the resultant script.   I would
> therefore be very cautious in using the argument that the script of Linear A
> must reflect the language well, since it was "invented" for linear A.

Sure.  I have no objection to this in principle.  But I'm not aware that there
exists any great evidence that Linear A was derived in any manner from any
earlier writing system.

Larry Trask
COGS
University of Sussex
Brighton BN1 9QH
UK

larryt at cogs.susx.ac.uk