Pre-Basque phonology (fwd)

[Eduard Selleslagh]

-----Original Message-----
From: Larry Trask <larryt at cogs.susx.ac.uk>
Date: Monday, September 27, 1999 10:24 AM

>On Fri, 24 Sep 1999, Eduard Selleslagh wrote:
[snip]

>> Supposing KE is derived from KAPNÓS, that is.

>How could it be?  The Basque word looks nothing like the Greek word.
>The central problem here is that initial /k/ in Basque, which simply
>should not exist, *regardless* of the origin of the word.

[Ed Selleslagh]

I meant that Bq. ke was derived from the first syllable (the second, IMHO from
-pneu-) KA- as I explained in my first post.

Your second remark about the initial K-: maybe it should not exist, but it
does. Maybe it's that what points to it being a loan.

>Anyway, I repeat: if Greek <kapno's> had somehow been borrowed into
>early Basque, it could not possibly have entered Basque in the form
>*<ke>.  The single segment shared by the two words is the one that could
>not have existed in early Basque: that initial /k/.

[Ed]
That depends on when it entered Basque.

>> On the other hand, the first syllable of Gr. KAPNÓS may be of a
>> common non-IE origin.

>Perhaps, but why is this relevant to Basque?

[Ed]

Because I meant 'common to Basque and Greek'. I was thinking of Vennemann's
'Vasconic' vel sim.

>>>> 2. If it is of IE origin, maybe via ancient Greek, the aspiration
>>>> would be secondary, I think.

>[LT]

>>> The Basque aspiration appears to be generally of suprasegmental origin
>>> anyway, and not of segmental origin.

>> As you said, 'generally'.

>Yes, but I see no reason to suppose that northern <khe> is an exception.

[Ed]
In what way? Which are the other segments?

Ed.