Bandkeramik and non-Anatolian PIE

[X99Lynx at aol.com]

I wrote in part:
<<Following Renfrew, roughly 4000 years separates NON-ANATOLIAN PIE (caps are
mine)...."

To which (2/8/00 4:20:02 AM) JoatSimeon at aol.com replied:
<<-- rather more, actually.  More like 6000.>>

I'm going to be a gentleman about this and presume you overlooked a very
important point I've tried to make.  And that you edited out.

I've often used the term non-Anatolian and 'narrow' PIE to describe PIE after
its separation from Hittite and the other Anatolian languages.  This is
rather orthodox linguistics.

I do this because the archaeological evidence draws a very distinctive line
between the "Anatolian-Balkan painted ware' culture of 7000-5000BC and the
Bandkeramik culture of the Danube that appears clearly about 5500BC.

Anatolian-Balkan painted ware cultures originate in Anatolia and do extend
beyond the Balkans in their final forms.  I am HERE identifying it with the
first branch-off from "wide PIE" - Hittite, Luwian, etc.  That is what I
wrote and you seem to disregard for no apparent reason.

Bandkeramik or Linear pottery culture represents very distinctive practices
and material remains.  The cookie cutter settlements often described in the
literature do not show up until about 5500BC.  Bandkeramik may have evolved
out of the Anatolian culture, but the differences in time and material
evidence are large and clear.

So I'm connecting Bandkeramik with post-Anatolian PIE -'narrow PIE'.  I'm
sure as an expert linguist you are familiar with the concept.

PLEASE DON"T insist Bandkeramik dates to 7000BC.  You may be an expert
linguist, but this dating is not subject to linguistic argument.  IF you know
of specific evidence that gives Bankeramik assemblages a 7000BC date, please
post them.  Otherwise, please consider that you may be giving very misleading
information to the members of this list.

On this basis, I wrote the following (unedited):

<<Following Renfrew, roughly 4000 years separates NON-ANATOLIAN PIE from
Mycenaean (1200BC), Sanskrit (1000BC?) and Latin (500BC).  How
'differentiated' are those three languages?>>

Now, I'm going to ask a courtesy here.

If you do not understand the connection I'm making between Bandkeramik and
non-Anatolian PIE, please address that fact.  If you disagree with that
connection is consistent with Renfrew, give some specific and supportable
reasons. Otherwise your one-line, unexplained contradictions seem to me to be
more appropriate to a pro football message board than any list with scholarly
objectives.

I won't address here your apparent claim that Myceanaean and Latin are almost
identical languages (2 on a scale of 1-10 - a 1 score being I presume
identical).

But I will mention that I did not ask you to score your perception of the
difference between Hittite and Latin.  And the reason for that was because -
aside from my trying to be fair - I was being consistent with the subject -
which was POST-ANATOLIAN PIE.

Though I'm sure that you also probably find Hittite and Latin
'linguistically' just more slices from the same white bread loaf, at least
pay some mind to the fact that I did not present you with that particular
comparison for a reason.

Regards,
Steve Long