GREEK PREHISTORY AND IE (EVIDENCE?)

[X99Lynx at aol.com]

I wrote:
<<Would you have any notion of how that group of speakers would correlate
with archaeologically?>>

JoatSimeon at aol.com replied:
<<-- languages are not pots.  There's usually no way to make a one-to-one
correlation between material culture and language.>>

Right.  Languages are not pots or wheels or primitive horse bits or evidence
of milking or evidence of the warp-weighted loom or any other form of
"material culture."

But some of us seem to have no qualms about using such evidence when it is to
our convenience.

E.G:
<<Date:         Mon, 18 Oct 1999 23:05:32 EDT
X-Reply-To:     Indo-European at xkl.com
X-Sender:       The INDO-EUROPEAN mailing list <indo-european at xkl.com>
From:         JoatSimeon at aol.com
Subject:      Re: Pre-Greek languages

An Elamo-Dravidian speech community through Iran to the Indus and beyond in
the Neolithic and Early Bronze Age,... DOES FIT THE ARCHAEOLOGICAL AND
HISTORICAL DATA RATHER NICELY.>>

I wonder what that nicely-fitting archaeological data might have been.  Pots
or ogham sticks?

And of course it is interesting to note that you can find a nice
archaeological "fit" for ancient Elamo-Dravidian but you cannot do that for
your proto Greek-Phrygian-Armenian-Indo-Iranian language in the Ukraine and
the Balkans between 3000 and 2000BC....

Would anyone have any interest in what the archaeological evidence is in the
Ukraine between 3000BC and 2000BC?

Regards,
Steve Long