Celtic's rate of differentiation

[Richard M. Alderson III]

On Fri, 11 Feb 2000, Steve Long (X99Lynx at aol.com) wrote, in response to
S. M. Stirling:

> In a message dated 2/2/00 12:43:52 PM, JoatSimeon at aol.com wrote:

> <<The IE languages when first encountered are NOT DIFFERENTIATED ENOUGH to
> have been separated by that depth of time!>>

> NOT DIFFERENTIATED ENOUGH?  HOW DO YOU KNOW THAT?

Because we have the texts:  Vedic Sanskrit, Avestan and Old Persian, Homeric
(and the later-discovered Mycenaean) Greek, early Latin, Hittite and the other
Anatolian languages, ad nauseam.  The languages we see are not much further
apart, to casual inspection, than the Romance or Germanic families.

You would have done better, rather than resorting to sarcasm, to point out
Lithuanian verb and noun morphology in your argument, since they have retained
to this day a number of similarities to Vedic Sanskrit, across a gulf of 3500
years--though several have been lost in the last 500.

								Rich Alderson