GREEK PREHISTORY AND IE (EVIDENCE?)

[Hans Holm]

Kommentar zu P56314 at H in der Gruppe Persönliche

SF>What's the obvious inference?  That migrations do leave evidence.

Depends on the circumstances.
I suggest to take a look at well-known examples. They should make clear
that  there are different ways for the spread of languages:

1) Lang's can be taken over without any migration, merely by way of
    economical dependence or cultural difference. Examples: The Wedda in S-
    India, some Pygmy-tribes, the Jakutes in N-Siberia (originally Evenks,
    who switched to the Turcic Dialect). There is no archeological evidence.

2) Language switching can be caused by a relativlely small class of
    military rulers. Examples: The Hungrians switching from Getic/Slavic
    /Ants/Dialects to an Ob-Ugrian lang. But where is the archeological or
    racial evidence?

3) Of cause migrations can be found: Nobody claims the Indo-Aryans to be
    the original inhabitants of India. But there is no prove that /they/
    destroyed e.g. the culture of Mohenjo Daro.

After all, pastoral nomads leave very little archeological evidence, if at
all.

SF>IE-style burials are known

.. It is still an assumption that burials are 'IE'. Such an assumption
still needs to be specified and substantiated.

  Hans J Holm
  - - et monere et moneri - -