NW vs. E Gmc
Sean Crist
kurisuto at unagi.cis.upenn.edu
Fri Jan 28 15:08:12 UTC 2000
On Mon, 24 Jan 2000 CONNOLLY at LATTE.MEMPHIS.EDU wrote:
(I wrote:)
>> 2. Marc Pierce mentioned gemination before *j. Actually, this is a
>> strictly WGmc innovation, and thus isn't evidence one way or the other for
>> the grouping of the three Gmc branches.
> Doesn't North Germanic geminate -kj- -gj- to -kkj- -ggj-? (I don't have my
> handbooks at hand.)
Yes. (Gordon 1957, p. 282) However, WGG applies to a much broader range
of cases: all of the consonants except *r (and *z) get geminated before
*j, and there also sporadic gemination of *p, *t, *k, and *h before *r and
*l. This broader gemination is strictly West Germanic.
I actually don't know of a good argument against the idea that the
gemination of velars could have been a common NWGmc innovation; I'd have
to do a good bit of looking to see if there's anything in the relative
chronology which would prevent this. Anyone know?
> The Gothic passive (actually, a PIE middle formation) has West
> Germanic parallels, such as OE _ha:tte_ 'is named' (cf. Gothic
> _haitada_), contrasting with active _ha:tT_ (T = thorn) 'calls'
> (Gothic. _haitiT_).
It's true that an old passive form is fossilized here, but the speakers of
OE and OHG almost certainly considered this word to be a separate lexical
item in its own right. A similar case: most speakers of modern English
probably consider "forlorn" a separate lexical item and are completely
unaware that the word contains a fossilized old past participle of "lose".
\/ __ __ _\_ --Sean Crist (kurisuto at unagi.cis.upenn.edu)
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