PIE e/o Ablaut
Richard M. Alderson III
alderson at netcom.com
Thu Mar 30 23:33:46 UTC 2000
On Thu, 30 Mar 2000, Pat Ryan (proto-language at email.msn.com) wrote:
> We have to distinguish --- and I believe you are not --- the proposition
> that "Sanskrit is a one vowel language" from what *I* am proposing: "Old
> Indian has one phonemic vowel".
In any reasonable phonological theory, the two statements are equivalent. What
do you think differentiates them?
Rich Alderson
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