Questioning of the elite dominance theory

[Tristan Jones]

> Ideology and cultural dominance may be a key. Most Germanic tribes
> tended to merely replace the local elite while respecting a variation of
> the existing system. The Goths and Franks were Christians (albeit Arianist)
> and attempted to maintain the same structures through an aparteid-like
> social hierarchy. The Turks were also a small minority elite but they
> welcomed anyone into their fold who converted to Islam. This probably made
> the difference

I suddenly got this interesting thought.
I think spread of languages has to do with Inclusive and Exclusive Elites
thing, Inclusive Elites like the Roman Empire was allowed Conquered peoples
to become part of elite as long as they adopted the conqueror's language and
culture. Exclusive elites do not allow conquered people's to become apart of
the elite such as White South Africa. Inclusive elite systems must have been
more successfully in imposing the language of conqueror's onto the
conquered. Maybe that's how Indo-Aryan Languages managed to spread to 75% of
India, despite the migration of Indo-Aryan Speaks must have been pretty
small. Maybe that inclusive elite thing might explain the success of spread
of Arabic over vast areas of Middle East and Africa, Mandarin and Cantonese
over huge areas of China, I think before the spread of Chinese Empire,
Austronesian Languages would have been spoken over large areas of Southern
China's Rice Growing Zones.