Getae as Goths
sarima at friesen.net
Tue Apr 3 01:24:03 UTC 2001
At 01:30 PM 3/29/01 -0600, David L. White wrote:
> Here is a somewhat wild, and probably worthless (or at least wrong)
>possibility: could the name of the Getae be from umlaut of /got-thiuda/ or
>something of the sort? Probably not: all Germanic umlaut is supposed to be
>a lot more recent than that,
Also, I am not sure that umlaut would cross a double consonant like 't-th'.
> By the way, how did the umlaut in "Goeteborg" (or is that "-burg")
>and "-goetland" get there? Does it suggest an earlier form (at least in the
>north) with following /i/?
At least in combining forms, very likely. In fact the 'e' in "Goeteborg"
probably goes back to an old 'i' (i.e. it was originally something like
May the peace of God be with you. sarima at friesen.net
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