Getae as Goths

[Stanley Friesen]

At 01:30 PM 3/29/01 -0600, David L. White wrote:
>         Here is a somewhat wild, and probably worthless (or at least wrong)
>possibility:  could the name of the Getae be from umlaut of /got-thiuda/ or
>something of the sort?  Probably not:  all Germanic umlaut is supposed to be
>a lot more recent than that,

Also, I am not sure that umlaut would cross a double consonant like 't-th'.

>         By the way, how did the umlaut in "Goeteborg" (or is that "-burg")
>and "-goetland" get there?  Does it suggest an earlier form (at least in the
>north) with following /i/?

At least in combining forms, very likely.  In fact the 'e' in "Goeteborg"
probably goes back to an old 'i' (i.e. it was originally something like
Go:tiburg).

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May the peace of God be with you.         sarima at friesen.net