sarima at friesen.net
Mon Apr 30 04:22:04 UTC 2001
At 08:49 AM 4/27/01 +0300, Ante Aikio wrote:
>- There was no uniform Proto-Uralic language, but instead a group of
>unrelated languages which coalesced into a "Uralic lingua franca" (some
>kind of pidgin or creole) some 10,000+ years ago.
I think I see a fallacy in their reasoning right here. At least I have
been lead to understand that pidgins and creoles are predominantly based on
a single parent language, and thus cannot really be termed
"mixtures". Have I been mislead, or is this the case?
May the peace of God be with you. sarima at friesen.net
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