No Proto-Celtic?

[Stanley Friesen]

At 08:49 AM 4/27/01 +0300, Ante Aikio wrote:
>- There was no uniform Proto-Uralic language, but instead a group of
>unrelated languages which coalesced into a "Uralic lingua franca" (some
>kind of pidgin or creole) some 10,000+ years ago.

I think I see a fallacy in their reasoning right here.  At least I have
been lead to understand that pidgins and creoles are predominantly based on
a single parent language, and thus cannot really be termed
"mixtures".  Have I been mislead, or is this the case?

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May the peace of God be with you.         sarima at friesen.net