Early Goths as Drinkers

[David L. White]

        Harking back to an earlier emissive, I would like to know more about
how the name of the Goths is supposed to have been from two different agent
nouns, each from a different ablaut grade.
        It would also be good to know how the /o/ got there in Latin.  One
possibility is that the name (as it reached Latin) is indeed an "other-name"
from other Germanic, in which case /o/ rather than /u/ in a past-participle
of /geutan/ (more or less) would in fact be regular.  Or, to put it perhaps
more clearly, the from with /o/ would be the non-Gothic Germanic, whereas
the form with /u/ would be the Gothic version.  That the Greeks were in
contact with the Goths whereas the Romans were in contact with other
Germanic tribes might explain this difference, which as far as I can see has
no other explanation.

Dr. David L. White