"neirt" versus "nert"

David L. White dlwhite at texas.net
Sat Mar 17 14:06:07 UTC 2001

> Wouldn't <nert> and <neirt> both be palatalized?

        No.  /e/ is traditionally held to have palatalized preceding
consonants, leaving following consonanats as they were.  Confusion of
spelling between the two types ("nert" for "neirt"), which occasionally
occurs (if I am remembering correctly), probably indicates the difficulty of
pronouncing palatalized /r/, which is mostly (or entirely?) gone from modern

Dr. David L. White

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