No Proto-Celtic?

[David L. White]

> I think I see a fallacy in their reasoning right here.  At least I have
> been lead to understand that pidgins and creoles are predominantly based on
> a single parent language, and thus cannot really be termed
> "mixtures".  Have I been mislead, or is this the case?

        It is usual for pidgin/creoles to have what is called a "lexifier
language", which forms the overwhelming basis of the lexicon.  There may be
a few quibbles about a few almost un-attested creoles like Chinook Jargon,
but I think that overall the principle is accepted as valid.

Dr. David L. White