[Lexicog] Re: "orientate" (was Frequency ...)

[David Frank]

Joseph, did you ever stop to think about what an "intermolar lateral" would
be?

----- Original Message -----
From: "Joseph Farquharson" <jtfarquharson at yahoo.co.uk>
To: <lexicographylist at yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Friday, June 10, 2005 10:25 AM
Subject: Re: [Lexicog] Re: "orientate" (was Frequency ...)


I am confused Mike. What exactly did you mean by the
correct form? Both forms were produced by speakers of
the language what makes one correct and the other
incorrect. Who is to say that it isn't orientate that
I use that is the incorrect form? Who decided on this
one?

Joseph

--- Mike Maxwell <maxwell at ldc.upenn.edu> wrote:


---------------------------------
John Roberts wrote:
> Mike seemed to be suggesting that this was a recent
> "corruption" of the English language.

Indeed I did.  Again, to quote that famous linguist
Henry Higgins, "Why
can't the English learn to speak?"  (And of course the
correct form,
'orient', pre-dates the incorrect form 'orientate' by
at least a hundred
years, according to the OED citations posted here.)

In terms of articulatory phonetics, I'm saying all of
this with an
intermolar lateral.
--
      Mike Maxwell
      Linguistic Data Consortium
      maxwell at ldc.upenn.edu




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