[Lexicog] Digest Number 495

[Gerard.Meijssen]

Hoi,
it depends very much why you are doing this. If you want to publish the resulting work, you will have to apply for a license for doing this. Just attributing is not good enough for commercial content like Websters. When you use the content of a resource like Wiktionary, there is a license like the GFDL. It requires you to attribute and it requires you to keep the resulting work in the same license.

Paraphrasing is hard work.

Thanks,
   GerardM

-----Original Message-----
From: lexicographylist at yahoogroups.com
To: lexicographylist at yahoogroups.com
Date: 18 Jan 2006 23:29:48 -0000
Subject: [Lexicog]  Digest Number 495

There is 1 message in this issue.

Topics in this digest:

      1. Use of standard definitions
           From: "sezame_55" <sue-52-zq at att.net>


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Message: 1         
   Date: Wed, 18 Jan 2006 16:58:55 -0000
   From: "sezame_55" <sue-52-zq at att.net>
Subject: Use of standard definitions

I am Compiling selected words and their definitions from the English 
language.  My question is:  Can I use Webster or any other dictionary 
definition in a published work without paraphrasing or do I have to 
quote and give source for each definition.  I am getting definitions 
from different sources.  This is a legal question.








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