[Lexicog] gendered language references
Hayim Sheynin
hsheynin19444 at YAHOO.COM
Fri Nov 24 22:48:55 UTC 2006
Dear Ken,
On the other hand, what is striking that Latin word patria is feminine. If you can imagine a simile that you country like a mother for you, why patria even it is derived etimologically from pater, cannot be feminine.
The same relates to patrimonia. The problem with gender of these words lie
not with the language, but rather with the thought. On one hand, you may explain
that patria is the country of your forefathers and foremothers and patrimonia is
the property (and legacy) of your forefathers and foremothers, on the other that
the roots of these words reflect reality of the patriarchal society, where fathers were the "top" persons.
--Hayim Sheynin
"Kenneth C. Hill" <kennethchill at yahoo.com> wrote: Grammatical gender is an insufficient explanation. I find it striking that in Spanish, the word for "fatherland" is grammatically feminine: la patria. Patria is a Latin word derived from pat(e)r 'father' + the feminine derivational suffix -ia.
--Ken
saghar sharifi <saghar_sharifi at yahoo.com> wrote:
The answer to your question would be that in some languages, as in German, the word " language " is feminine.
Leman <wayne_leman at sil.org> wrote:
I'm wondering about English terms for kinds of languages:
Why do we speak of a mother tongue but not a father tongue?
Why do we speak of sister languages but not brother languages?
Why are there daughter languages but not son languages?
Why can we refer to both a motherland and a fatherland?
Do other languages use kinship terms to refer to language relationships?
Wayne
-----
Wayne Leman
Cheyenne dictionary online:
http://www11.asphost4free.com/cheyennedictionary/default.htm
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