[Lexicog] Re: Interesting inquiry
bolstar1
bolstar1 at YAHOO.COM
Tue Jul 8 08:07:56 UTC 2008
Rudy, saw the post, and noticed that going from "control of"
to
"power or authority to check or restrain" is acceptable as a
parameter of possibility since "or" gives it technical license --
to be one or the other. But it's a spurious parameter. Only "power"
would work, since "authority" couldn't ("authority" meaning official
sanction).
But more importantly, to go from "power to check" to "power to
chide" is even more egregious, since "chide" means only to find fault
with, reproach, reprove, censure, nag, etc. So to go from "power to
chide"
to
"power to find fault with" is doubly wrong (not just within
a parameter of two possibilities).
Methinks this false syllogism (of phrasal synonymising (Am.) ||
synonymising (Br.) is too obvious to be taken seriously, and the
author was having fun with you. But we had fun with the syllogism, so
the joke is on us, and we are prepared to laugh (or at least smile).
Your explanation to the inquisitor would be even more fun to know.
Scott Nelson
> I received the following inquiry from Keith Percy, who gave me
permission
> to pass it on to the LexList. It is intriguing as a demonstration
of a
> literal attempt to substitute dictionary definitions for lexical
items in
> an effort to gain a clearer understanding. I have responded to him
already
> pointing out some problems with his application of the method, but
I thought
> that list members would be interested in observing the process in
action. He
> has asked for further help from a real lexicographer (which I
cannot claim
> to be), so if anyone is willing to help, his e-mail address is at
the
> bottom of the message.
>
> Rudy Troike
>
> Hello-
> Would you, or do you know any one who could help me out with
this? Please
> let me know. Maybe you know someone else who could help me? Thank
you. This
> means A LOT to me.
>
> The question:
> Is this following process an acceptable way to get an accurate
understanding of
> the ORIGINAL statement in this textbook I am using?
>
> -origional statement: "...he begins to lose all control of
his liquor
> consumption..."
>
> -initial word being sought
> to understand better: "...control..."
>
>
> When seeking to understand this word in a sentence, is it perfectly
acceptable
> to do this;
>
> From: ...he begins to lose all control of his liquor
consumption...
> To: ...he begins to lose all [power or authority to check or
restrain] of his
> liquor...
>
> From: ...he begins to lose all [power or authority to check or
restrain] of his
> liquor...
> To: ...he begins to lose all [power to check] of his liquor...
>
> From: ...he begins to lose all [power to check] of his liquor...
> To: ...he begins to lose all [power to (chide)] of his liquor...
>
> From: ...he begins to lose all [power to (chide)] of his liquor...
> To: ...he begins to lose all [power to (find fault with)] of his
liquor...
>
>
> Basically, defining words and plugging them in for the defined word.
>
> So, is this example above an acceptable way to get an accurate
understanding of
> the ORIGIONAL statement?
>
> Have any suggestions or comments?
>
> This is for personal understanding, nothing to 'turn in' to an
instructor...
> Seeking to relate to, and understand in an ACURATE way, what these
writers of
> this text could have accepted as an elaboration of their origional,
intended
> knowledge written for the reader(s) to obtain. This REALLY means a
lot to me!
> Thank you!!
>
>
> -Keith R. Percy
>
> Keith.Percy at ...
>
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