Case marking in the absence of agreement

[dever at verb.linguist.pitt.edu]

It is *usually* the case that verbs will agree with subjects before objects 
and that objects will be case marked before verbs, expressed informally 
via the implications in (i) and (ii):

(i) object agreement ---> subject agreement
(ii) overt nominative case marking ---> overt objective case marking


Does anyone know of studies that look at implication (ii) in languages 
without any verb agreement morphology, i.e. without subject OR object 
agreement? That is, does (ii) hold if the language lacks agreement?

Also, in languages which have been claimed to violate (i), is (ii) also 
violated?

Please reply to me directly if you have any information on these 
questions and I will post a summary of responses.

Thanks,

-- DLE


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Dan Everett
Department of Linguistics
University of Pittsburgh
2816 CL
Pittsburgh, PA 15260
Phone: 412-624-8101; Fax: 412-624-6130
http://www.linguistics.pitt.edu/~dever