Just a note and a question...

Thu Oct 29 23:18:41 UTC 1998

I am the son of Dr Revere Perkins, and would first like to have you change his
mailing address for this list and remove this one. His new address is
reveredp at meta4inc.com I spoke to him and he would like that one added, this
one removed..
Now my question, and maybe this has nothing to do with actual linguistics,
but, here it goes... Is there an actual event in history where "swear" words
were labeled "swear" words? I mean, to me, its sort of rediculous that one
combination of letters such as the word, and excuse my "french" so to speak,
"Fuck" means in atleast one interpretation, sexual intercourse, and then again
so does "mating" and the words "sexual intercourse". So, my question is, what
makes that combination a "bad" one? I understand it was a moral issue of
sorts, but, is it because of the context it was used or the way it was said?
Who gave these people the right to decide this? Why do we so readily except
it?  If you dont want to reply to this, I understand. Just curious. Not
something I can readily speak about with my christian Dad.. =]

-= MaX =-

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