Hungarian

[Edith A Moravcsik]

I am thinking about Martin Haspelmath interesting and thorough analysis
of the Hungarian verbal paradigm. I very much agree on the general goal
of representing languages as similar as much as possible rather than
as being distinct.

This is just a quick question to Martin for clarification:
if we considered Hungarian transitive verbs as not showing definiteness
agreement - i.e., an instance of agreement of the verb with the direct
object in definiteness - but, rather, as showing object agreement, as
Martin suggested, then what would be the agreement feature? In other
words, the verb would then agree with the object in what?

Edith



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			 Edith A. Moravcsik
			 Department of Foreign Languages and Linguistics
			 University of Wisconsin-Milwaukee
		         Milwaukee, WI 53201-0413
                         USA

			 E-mail: edith at uwm.edu
		         Telephone: (414) 229-6794 /office/
				    (414) 332-0141 /home/
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