words for words and languages

[Yura Lander]

Dear colleagues,

I am looking for any counterexamples to the following claim
(for the sake of convenience I give two variants, but note
that they are equal):

1) If a language uses the same word both for .language.
and .word., then this language has not an obligatory
grammatical category of number,

2) If a language has an obligatory grammatical category of
number, then this language uses different words for the
notions .language. and .word..

The reason seems to me rather transparent and is related to
the possibility of a kind of metonymic shift. On the other
hand, I do admit that historical change may lead to the
violation of (any version of) this claim. Yet I will be
very grateful to anyone who can give me information on this
point.

Thanks in advance,

Yury Lander