[Lingtyp] comparative concepts
David Gil
gil at shh.mpg.de
Sat Jan 23 10:08:45 UTC 2016
On 23/01/2016 18:45, Martin Haspelmath wrote:
> Edith Moravcsik asked: "It is impossible in principle for
> constructions in two languages to be members of the same descriptive
> category?" I would say yes, because descriptive categories are set up
> on a language-specific basis ("distributionally", to use Bill Croft's
> word) for the purposes of description (or analysis). Hypothetically
> one could imagine two languages that have exactly the same grammar
> (but different words), and in that case, one might say that they share
> descriptive categories. Perhaps at a lower level, this situation is
> actually found – so maybe with respect to the behaviour of property
> words, Italian and Spanish are indeed close to identical. In that
> case, it would not do any practical harm to say that they have the
> same descriptive category. But we normally describe each language
> separately (e.g. we do not skip the description of Spanish adjective
> syntax and point to an already existing description of the same facts
> in an Italian grammar), i.e. we treat each grammar as an indivisible
> unique system.
In the following paper I argued that it is in fact possible to compare
purely formal constructions across languages:
Gil, David (2000) "Syntactic Categories, Cross-Linguistic Variation and
Universal Grammar", in P. M. Vogel and B. Comrie eds., /Approaches to
the Typology of Word Classes/, Empirical Approaches to Language
Typology, Mouton, Berlin and New York, 173-216.
I am aware that the above paper may strike many readers of this thread
as not too dissimilar from lots of formal generative gibberish. But
crucially, the syntactic categories that I define there are based
exclusively on distributional criteria, and are blind to the semantics.
Indeed, in different languages, the same syntactic category may contain
items of very different semantic types. Crucially, in the context of
the present discussion, the syntactic categories posited therein are
both valid for individual languages and, at the same time, useful for,
and in fact partly motivated by, cross-linguistic comparisons.
Contrary to many of my colleagues, I am actually more skeptical about
the cross-linguistic validity of semantic categories than I'm about
purely formal ones. (For example, the semantic category of property
denoting seems to me to be at least as problematical as the
morphosyntactic category of attributive expressions.)
--
David Gil
Department of Linguistic and Cultural Evolution
Max Planck Institute for the Science of Human History
Kahlaische Strasse 10, 07745 Jena, Germany
Email: gil at shh.mpg.de
Mobile Phone (Indonesia): +62-812-73567992
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