[Lingtyp] Does bipolar polysemy exist?

[Alan Hyun-Oak Kim]

Dear Ian,


I have a pair for you in Korean.


(A)   iss-ta   ---   to exist, to possess something

(Z)eps-ta  ---   not to exist, not to possess something


If you




Alan Hyun-Oak Kim, Ph.D.

President, International Circle of Korean Linguistics
Professor, Japanese and Linguistics
Department of Language, Culture, and International Studies
Department of Linguistics (Adjunct)
Southern Illinois University Carbondale,
Carbondale, IL 62901-4521
+618-453-5421 (Direct)
+618-536-5571 (Dept)
alanhkim at siu.edu
https://siu.academia.edu/alanhokim



________________________________
From: Lingtyp <lingtyp-bounces at listserv.linguistlist.org> on behalf of Mattis List <mattis.list at lingpy.org>
Sent: Thursday, May 31, 2018 6:03 AM
To: lingtyp at listserv.linguistlist.org
Subject: Re: [Lingtyp] Does bipolar polysemy exist?

Wouldn't the frequent cases of pronouns or pronoun-like words in French
(personne = "person, nobody", pas = "step, not", etc.) come close to
this notion? And this process has historically also be claimed for other
negation words, like Ancient Greek "ou", if I am not mistaken.

Best,

Mattis

On 2018-05-31 12:57, Joo Ian wrote:
> Dear all,
>
>
>
> I would like to know if the following universal claim holds:
>
>
>
> /There exists no lexeme that can mean X and the negation of X. (For
> example, no lexeme can express “to go” and “to not go”)./
>
>
>
> I wonder if such “bipolar polysemy” exists in any lexeme, because I
> cannot think of any, and whether this claim is truly universal.
>
> I would appreciate to know if there is any counter-evidence.
>
>
>
> From Hong Kong,
>
> Ian Joo
>
> https://urldefense.proofpoint.com/v2/url?u=http-3A__ianjoo.academia.edu&d=DwIGaQ&c=jrLYy3FV6j9HoN3FfGW-SLJoSRpiMyAzztY4B1tagEk&r=LeUd4dshHnTaRwWWBvkIjQ&m=DtbImjVgia6JiQFZUhxLC3AYglQ_QUFl_o5_rxOpyMw&s=gRawxGxB0R7kPNyomWQA3oGuBWzWJ2_UwRYTaBAvN0g&e=
>
>
>
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