[Lingtyp] languages with just lexical contour tones / bitonal units?

[Adam James Ross Tallman]

Hey all,

It's been suggested to me that the language I'm working on really makes a
distinction between 0 vs. LH lexical marking, rather than 0 vs. H as I had
previously thought. Looking at connected speech the evidence for this seems
very strong and I'm starting to overcome my initial resilience to the
proposal.

Has this been proposed for any other language? (i.e. a language that just
has 0, LH or 0, HL and no corresponding lexical Ls and Hs). I want to know
what the evidence looks like for other language? In my case it's primarily
phonetic and I'm not really sure what strictly phonological evidence would
look like.

Notice I'm not asking about pitch accents or intonational marking etc. But
cases where it can be shown that the categories are really lexically
specified.

Help would be appreciated, I hope everyone is well and healthy.

best,

Adam

-- 
Adam J.R. Tallman
PhD, University of Texas at Austin
Investigador del Museo de Etnografía y Folklore, la Paz
ELDP -- Postdoctorante
CNRS -- Dynamique Du Langage (UMR 5596)
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