[Lingtyp] Right node raising cross-linguistically

Adam James Ross Tallman ajrtallman at utexas.edu
Wed Sep 29 07:10:29 UTC 2021


 Thanks for the response Adam!

Yes, this was my understanding after reading Chavez's paper - actually it's
partly why I asked. But then I struggle to see how one can distinguish
between RNR and coordination in any consistent way and I actually find that
pretty damning for syntactic theory.

The issue is important because it essentially means that all RNR is is some
sort of post-hoc rationalization for treating some coordinate structures
differently than others *just so *it fits with your theory about
constituency and nothing else (also more or less my view on "clitic
phenomena" and the morphology-syntax division).

So I was hoping maybe there was something more empirical out there to latch
on to ...

best,

Adam

On Tue, Sep 28, 2021 at 7:19 PM Adam Singerman <adamsingerman at uchicago.edu>
wrote:

> Hello Adam,
>
> I'm not sure that one could try to give RNR a crosslinguistically
> comparative definition, in part because it's not clear that RNR is a
> "thing" to be explained in of itself. So the issue might be moot. Take
> a look at Rui Chaves's 2014 Language paper, entitled "On the disunity
> of right-node raising phenomena" (formalized within HPSG; the late
> Ivan Sag was Chaves's adviser, I believe).
>
> Abraços,
> the other Adam
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>


-- 
Adam J.R. Tallman
Post-doctoral Researcher
Friedrich Schiller Universität
Department of English Studies
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